No, I don’t think so. We have found that the diameter of the sphere that spins is similar to the diameter of the magnet. The result is that the poles of the two magnets are not aligned. Some of our experiments show that there is a “deflection” that occurs at some point in the two magnet. However, the magnetic attraction between the magnets and the earth (which is the force between two magnets) cancels these deflections.

You have to consider another important aspect of this equation, the magnetic moment. If I were to measure the magnetic moment between the magnets, I would find that the distance between their poles is the same, and my magnetic poles would be at the opposite points on the earth.

You might have realized that these two equations could be written as something like this:

$$\frac{c}{2} (x_1 – \frac{x_2}{2} x_{n-1+1} )$$

$$x_1 – \frac{x_2}{2} x_{n-1+1} = (x_1^2/3 – x_2^2/3)$$

$$x_1 – \frac{x_2}{2} x_{n-1+1} = (x_1^2/3 – x_2^2/3)+x_{n-1+1} $$

You can easily verify that with this equation.

What Does it Mean to Have No Pole?

It means that there is no force between two magnet poles on the earth. In other words, the poles of the two magnets don’t add up, but don’t cancel out. This is different than the forces that you might expect from the poles of two magnets on the poles of the ground, or two poles on the poles of other magnets.

We do not have an explanation for why this is true so far, but we are looking into the reason right now.

More Examples

Consider the following example from Wikipedia:

Here we see an example of the second situation, so the term $2^2 – 3 \pi \sqrt{2}$ is significant. To solve for $\pi$ we subtract the poles of the two magnets from the poles of the ground. Then we take the square root of the result. This gives the inverse square root $\sqrt{3}$.

In this case, it is

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